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ETAA Reading Comprehension Final

    Answer the following 39 questions.
    You have 1 hour to complete this section of the Entrance Exam.

    For Questions #1-#9, click on the Reading Passage #1 link, and use the information to answer the questions.

    Reading Passage #1

    1. The passage is written from the perspective of someone who is
    A) actively involved in conducting hibernator research.
    B) a participant in a recent debate in the field of cardiology.
    C) knowledgeable about advances in hibernator research.
    D) an advocate for wildlife preservation.

    2. It is reasonable to conclude that the main goal of the scientists conducting the research described in the passage is to
    A) learn how the hibernation patterns of bears and squirrels differ.
    B) determine the role that fat plays in hibernation.
    C) illustrate the important health benefits of exercise for humans.
    D) explore possible ways to prevent human diseases.

    3. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?
    A) Lines 1-5 (“Understanding . . . dystrophy”)
    B) Lines 10-13 (“Fat . . . squirrels”)
    C) Lines 31-35 (“To . . . bears”)
    D) Lines 42-46 (“Once . . . tissues”)

    4. What main effect do the quotations by Andrews in lines 10-18 have on the tone of the passage?
    A) They create a bleak tone, focusing on the difficulties hibernators face during the winter.
    B) They create a conversational tone, relating scientific information in everyday language.
    C) They create an ominous tone, foreshadowing the dire results of Andrews's research.
    D) They create an absurd tone, using images of animals acting as if they were human.

    5. As used in line 19, "stores" most nearly means
    A) preservatives.
    B) reserves.
    C) stacks.
    D) shelters.

    6. Based on the passage, what is FroberT's hypothesis regarding why bears' arteries do not harden during hibernation?
    A) The bears' increased plasma cholesterol causes the arteries to be more flexible.
    B) Sluggish circulation pinches off the blood vessels rather than hardening the arteries.
    C) Bears exercise in short, infrequent bursts during hibernation, which staves off hardened arteries.
    D) Bears possess a molecule that protects against hardened arteries.

    7. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?
    A) Lines 19-20 ("Bigger .. . spring")
    B) Lines 24-27 ("The brown . .. day")
    C) Lines 69-72 ("Even . . . streaks")
    D) Lines 73-76 ("It's .. . well")

    8. What information discussed in paragraph 10 (lines 58-68) is represented by the graph?
    A) The information in lines 58-62 ("Recent . . . reported")
    B) The information in lines 62-64 ("These .. . hibernation")
    C) The information in lines 64-65 ("Lolling . . . circulation")
    D) The information in lines 67-68 ("It's . . . strokes")

    9. Which statement about the effect of hibernation on the seven bears is best supported by the graph?
    A) Only one of the bears did not experience an appreciable change in its total plasma cholesterol level.
    B) Only one of the bears experienced a significant increase in its total plasma cholesterol level.
    C) All of the bears achieved the desirable plasma cholesterol level for humans.
    D) The bear with the lowest total plasma cholesterol level in its active state had the highest total plasma cholesterol level during hibernation.

    For Questions #10-#19, click on the Reading Passage #2 link, and use the information to answer the questions.

    Reading Passage #2

    10. The author of Passage 1 suggests that the usefulness of de-extinction technology may be limited by the
    A) amount of time scientists are able to devote to genetic research.
    B) relationship of an extinct species to contemporary ecosystems.
    C) complexity of the DNA of an extinct species.
    D) length of time that a species has been extinct.

    11. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?
    A) Lines 7-9 (“Thanks . . . life”)
    B) Lines 9-11 (“Only . . . genetically”)
    C) Line 13 (“It will be . . . difficult”)
    D) Lines 13-14 (“It will take . . . succeed”)

    12. As used in line 27, “deepest” most nearly means
    A) most engrossing.
    B) most challenging.
    C) most extensive.
    D) most fundamental.

    13. The authors of Passage 2 indicate that the matter of shrinking biodiversity should primarily be
    considered a
    A) historical anomaly.
    B) global catastrophe.
    C) scientific curiosity.
    D) political problem.

    14. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?
    A) Lines 37-41 (“Species . . . ago”)
    B) Lines 42-45 (“A program . . . woes”)
    C) Lines 53-56 (“Against . . . irresponsible”)
    D) Lines 65-67 (“Such . . . grave”)

    15. How would the authors of Passage 2 most likely respond to the "prospect" referred to in line 21, Passage 1?
    A) With approval, because it illustrates how useful de-extinction could be in addressing widespread environmental concerns.
    B) With resignation, because the gradual extinction of many living species is inevitable.
    C) With concern, because it implies an easy solution to a difficult problem.
    D) With disdain, because it shows that people have little understanding of the importance of genetic diversity.

    16. As used in line 37, "great" most nearly means
    A) lofty.
    B) wonderful.
    C) large.
    D) intense.

    17. The reference to the "black-footed ferret and the northern white rhino" (line 64) serves mainly to
    A) emphasize a key distinction between extinct and living species.
    B) account for types of animals whose numbers are dwindling.
    C) provide examples of species whose gene pools are compromised.
    D) highlight instances of animals that have failed to adapt to new habitats.

    18. Which choice best states the relationship between the two passages?
    A) Passage 2 attacks a political decision that Passage 1 strongly advocates.
    B) Passage 2 urges caution regarding a technology that Passage 1 describes in favorable terms.
    C) Passage 2 expands on the results of a research study mentioned in Passage 1.
    D) Passage 2 considers practical applications that could arise from a theory discussed in Passage 1.

    19. Which choice would best support the claim that the authors of Passage 2 recognize that the "imagination soars" (line 24, Passage 1) in response to de-extinction technology?
    A) Lines 28-30 ("The . . . news")
    B) Lines 30-33 ("Yet . . . crisis")
    C) Lines 58-59 ("That . . . altogether")
    D) Lines 61-63 ("For . . . diversity")

    For Questions #20-#19, click on the Reading Passage #3 link, and use the information to answer the questions.

    Reading Passage #3

    20. The first paragraph engages the reader by
    A) describing an experiment without revealing its purpose
    B) challenging a theory and sharing the results
    C) citing data to disprove a theory
    D) introducing an issue to explain its implications

    21. As used in line 13, the word "diminutive" most nearly means
    A) unknown
    B) little
    C) sickly
    D) solitary

    22. According to the author, the results of the Peter Lake experiment (lines 15 through 18) were
    A) intentional
    B) unethical
    C) exaggerated
    D) inconclusive

    23. The flipped food webs in Namibia, North Carolina, and the Northwest Atlantic (lines 18 through 22) can best be characterized as
    A) artificial
    B) necessary
    C) planned
    D) problematic

    24. In lines 23 and 24, the author emphasizes that the main cause for the flipping of food webs is
    A) emerging diseases
    B) human activity
    C) natural disasters
    D) accelerated evolution

    25. According to lines 32 through 39, why is it important to predict a possible change in an ecosystem?
    A) to expand human involvement
    B) to stop scientific experimentation
    C) to forestall irreversible damage
    D) to identify potential benefits

    26. The author's use of questions in lines 41 through 43 establishes a
    A) connection between population changes and scientific findings
    B) relationship between existing predators and prey populations
    C) dispute between prior research and experimental outcomes
    D) conflict between established theories and new ideas

    27. The author's use of the phrase "hopeless snarls" in line 46 connotes a
    A) savage nature
    B) depressing situation
    C) distressed sound
    D) tangled mass

    28. The details presented in lines 53 through 61 help the reader to understand the
    A) negative effects of weak links
    B) predators' need for one food source
    C) importance of having multiple prey
    D) danger in natural flipping

    29. Which statement best summarizes a central idea of the text?
    A) "Predicting those sudden changes is far from straightforward, however, because food webs can be staggeringly complex." (lines 25 and 26)
    B) "Fortunately, the rise of fast, cheap computers has recently allowed ecologists to run simulations of many different kinds of ecosystems." (lines 51 and 52)
    C) "Most food webs, for instance, consist of many weak links rather than a few strong ones." (line 54)
    D) "But then we humans began running unplanned experiments that put this so-called trophic cascade hypothesis to the test." (lines 71 and 72)

    For Questions #30-#39, click on the Reading Passage #4 link, and use the information to answer the questions.

    Reading Passage #4

    30. Lines 1 through 11 introduce the central idea of the passage by
    A) explaining how ear structure affects sound
    B) describing various frequencies dogs hear
    C) explaining various ways humans hear
    D) describing how dog whistle tones differ

    31. Lines 19 through 22 best support the idea that
    A) dogs cannot learn to obey human signals
    B) human actions are difficult for dogs to interpret
    C) humans can verbally communicate with dogs
    D) dogs can learn complex human language

    32. Based on lines 19 through 25, humans can possibly confuse dogs by
    A) speaking to dogs in a nonsense language
    B) giving dogs only direct commands
    C) making gestures when speaking to dogs
    D) altering the intonation of familiar words

    33. Lines 26 through 29 illustrate that language use is an indicator of
    A) higher-level thinking
    B) basic survival instinct
    C) increased emotional response
    D) problem-solving skills

    34. In lines 33 through 36, the author states there is agreement that non-human animals cannot
    A) master complicated directions
    B) duplicate human sound pitches
    C) create human sentence structures
    D) interpret foreign languages

    35. The primary function of the examples in lines 38 through 42 is to show how some animals can
    A) imitate behavior and sound
    B) foster community and diversity
    C) transform from prey to predator
    D) compromise freedom for safety

    36. The author uses the term "gibberish" in line 60 to emphasize the
    A) importance of word order
    B) complexity of spoken sounds
    C) relevance of hidden gestures
    D) necessity of voice and movement

    37. Which sentence best restates a central idea in lines 57 through 65?
    A) High-pitched sounds often cause dogs to become agitated.
    B) How we speak to dogs is more important than what we say.
    C) Dogs must learn to interpret human speech early in life.
    D) Dogs become distressed when they hear baby talk.

    38. The author's reference to "motherese" (line 66) helps to illustrate a connection between the
    A) combinations of languages and the effects on listeners
    B) volume of speech and possible misperception
    C) importance of word choice and its impact on understanding
    D) styles of spoken communication and likely responses

    39. The primary purpose of the text is to
    A) explain a popular myth regarding dogs' behavior
    B) promote a new method for working with dogs
    C) educate people about dogs' experience with sound
    D) present an alternative to traditional dog training


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